HAS THE BIBLE BEEN CORRUPTED?
- When/Where? Before Muhammad?
- Qur’an disagrees:
- “God’s word does not change” (Suras 3:2,78; 4:135; 6:34; 10:64; 18:26; 35:42; 50:28-29).
- “No difference between Bible & Qur’an” (Suras 2:136; 3:2-3).
- “Muslims must ask Christians” (Suras 10:94; 21:7)
- “Dispute not with the Christians” (Sura 29:46)
- “Muslims are to believe in the Bible” (Sura 4:136)
- “Christians are to believe in the Bible” (Suras 5:46-47, 68)
- No warning against its corruption. In fact the argument did not exist until Ibn Hazam (1064), showing that it is a 11th century Muslim polemic.
After Muhammad?
- If the Bible was changed after Muhammad’s life, what do we do with:
- (1) 24,000 Manuscripts: in Greek, Latin and other languages, 230 MSS before 6th century.
- (2) 15,000 translations: Latin, Syriac, Coptic, Armenian, Gothic, Georgian, Ethiopic, Nubian,
- (3) 2,135 lectionaries from the 6th century,
- (4) 86,489 quotations of N.T. in early church father’s letters 36,000 before 325AD (recreating all the N. Test. but 11 verses)
- Who did it, Jews or Christians? How do they have identical scriptures?
- Why no record of corruption, and why authentic ones not hidden?
- If changed then why not expunge embarrassing stories
(i.e. Peter’s denial of Christ Matt.26:69-75; Paul’s disputes with Barnabas = Acts 15:39)?